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Pre-assessment for sixth grade

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

1. 
Day and night are caused by
a.
the tilt of Earth’s axis.
b.
Earth’s revolution around the sun.
c.
eclipses.
d.
Earth’s rotation on its axis.
 

2. 
One complete revolution of Earth around the sun takes about
a.
one rotation.
b.
one season.
c.
one year.
d.
one eclipse.
 

3. 
Earth has seasons because
a.
Earth rotates on its axis.
b.
the distance between Earth and the sun changes.
c.
Earth’s axis is tilted as it moves around the sun.
d.
the temperature of the sun changes.
 

4. 
When the north end of Earth’s axis is tilted toward the sun, North America will experience
a.
more indirect rays and shorter days.
b.
more indirect rays and longer days.
c.
more direct rays and shorter days.
d.
more direct rays and longer days.
 

5. 
The phase of the moon you see depends on
a.
where you are on Earth’s surface.
b.
how much of the sunlit side of the moon faces Earth.
c.
how much of the moon’s surface is lit by the sun.
d.
whether or not an eclipse is occurring.
 

6. 
For a solar eclipse to occur,
a.
the sun must be directly between Earth and the moon.
b.
the moon must be directly between Earth and the sun.
c.
the moon must be directly behind Earth.
d.
Earth must be directly between the sun and the moon.
 

7. 
During what phase can a lunar eclipse occur?
a.
new moon
b.
first quarter
c.
waxing gibbous
d.
full moon
 

8. 
When are tides highest?
a.
during the moon’s first quarter phase
b.
when the sun, Earth, and the moon are nearly in a line
c.
during the moon’s third quarter phase
d.
when the moon is at a right angle to the sun
 

9. 
Tides are caused mainly by
a.
Earth’s rotation on its axis, which causes water to move.
b.
differences in how much the sun pulls on different parts of Earth.
c.
strong winds blowing water onto coasts.
d.
differences in how much the moon pulls on different parts of Earth.
 

10. 
It’s a basic law of physics that for every force, or action, there is
a.
a decreased force, or reaction.
b.
an equal force in the same direction.
c.
an increased force, or reaction.
d.
an equal and opposite force, or reaction.
 

11. 
Earth’s rotation takes about
a.
365 days.
b.
6 months.
c.
24 hours.
d.
1 month.
 

12. 
In the Southern Hemisphere, the summer solstice occurs when the sun is directly overhead at
a.
the equator.
b.
23.5° south latitude.
c.
23.5° north latitude.
d.
30° south latitude.
 

13. 
An equinox occurs when
a.
neither end of Earth’s axis is tilted toward or away from the sun.
b.
the north end of Earth’s axis is tilted away from the sun.
c.
the north end of Earth’s axis is tilted toward the sun.
d.
Earth’s axis is parallel to the sun’s rays.
 

14. 
Because the moon rotates once for each revolution around Earth,
a.
you see some phases more than others.
b.
a different side of the moon faces Earth each day.
c.
you never see the far side of the moon.
d.
the far side of the moon is visible only during the full moon phase.
 

15. 
You are more likely to see a solar eclipse than a lunar eclipse because
a.
the moon’s shadow covers all of Earth during a solar eclipse.
b.
new moon phases occur less often than full moon phases.
c.
only people on the daytime side of Earth can see a solar eclipse.
d.
you must be in the moon’s shadow to see a solar eclipse.
 

16. 
When do neap tides occur?
a.
at new moon
b.
when the sun’s pull is in the same direction as the moon’s
c.
when the sun’s pull is at right angles to the moon’s
d.
at full moon
 

17. 
The model in which Earth is at the center of the system of planets is called the
a.
solar system.
b.
heliocentric system.
c.
geocentric system.
d.
Copernican system.
 

18. 
The two factors that combine to keep the planets in orbit are
a.
gravity and orbital speed.
b.
orbital speed and mass.
c.
mass and inertia.
d.
gravity and inertia.
 

19. 
The tendency of a moving object to continue moving in a straight line or a stationary object to remain in place is called
a.
orbital speed.
b.
mass.
c.
inertia.
d.
gravity.
 

20. 
What do all of the inner planets have in common?
a.
They have the same period of revolution.
b.
They have the same period of rotation.
c.
They have the same diameter.
d.
They are small and have rocky surfaces.
 

21. 
The atmospheres of the gas giant planets cannot escape into space because
a.
the gases are too heavy.
b.
the gases solidify at higher elevations.
c.
the planets have very strong gravities.
d.
although they are big, the planets have little mass.
 

22. 
What do the first four outer planets have in common?
a.
They are much larger than Earth and are made mainly of gases.
b.
They are about the same size as Earth and are made mainly of gases.
c.
They are much larger than Earth and are solid.
d.
They are about the same size as Earth and are solid.
 

23. 
What shape are the orbits of most comets?
a.
long, narrow ellipses
b.
circles
c.
nearly circular ellipses
d.
spherical
 

24. 
Copernicus explained that
a.
the sun is at the center of the system of planets.
b.
the sun and the planets revolve around Earth.
c.
the geocentric system is correct.
d.
there are only six planets.
 

25. 
Venus and Earth are much alike in terms of
a.
their size and density.
b.
their rates of rotation.
c.
their atmospheres.
d.
their direction of rotation.
 

26. 
Uranus is different from most other planets because it
a.
is the farthest from the sun.
b.
is mostly nitrogen and helium.
c.
rotates on its side.
d.
has the most moons.
 

27. 
The Milky Way Galaxy is a type of
a.
spiral galaxy.
b.
cloud galaxy.
c.
elliptical galaxy.
d.
irregular galaxy.
 

28. 
One piece of evidence that supports the big bang theory is the observation that most galaxies are moving
a.
toward our galaxy.
b.
toward each other.
c.
in random directions.
d.
away from each other.
 

29. 
The theory that astronomers have developed to describe the formation of the universe is called the
a.
expanding cloud theory.
b.
time warp theory.
c.
galactic expansion theory.
d.
big bang theory.
 

30. 
The solar system formed from
a.
an expanding galaxy.
b.
a giant cloud of gas and dust.
c.
an enormous explosion.
d.
a black hole.
 

31. 
When the solar system formed, the spheres that lost most of their gases became the
a.
inner planets.
b.
comets.
c.
outer planets.
d.
asteroids.
 

32. 
The force that tends to pull together the matter in stars is
a.
gravity.
b.
nuclear fusion.
c.
expansion.
d.
nuclear fission.
 

33. 
Air in the atmosphere has pressure because
a.
the stratosphere is thick.
b.
air has mass.
c.
wind moves the air.
d.
temperature warms the air.
 

34. 
The less mass in a given volume of air, the
a.
more the air weighs.
b.
greater the air pressure.
c.
more dense the air.
d.
less dense the air.
 

35. 
When climbing a high mountain, you get out of breath easily because
a.
the percentage of oxygen in the air decreases.
b.
the air is more dense.
c.
there is less oxygen in each cubic meter of air.
d.
air pressure is greater.
 

36. 
Water vapor is water in the form of
a.
steam.
b.
crystals.
c.
a gas.
d.
droplets.
 

37. 
Density can be determined using
a.
density = mass/volume
b.
density = volume/mass
c.
density = mass • volume
d.
density = mass + volume
 

38. 
The greenhouse effect is
a.
the absorption of energy by clouds.
b.
a gradual increase in the temperature of the atmosphere.
c.
the reflection of solar energy into the atmosphere.
d.
the process by which gases hold heat in the atmosphere.
 

39. 
The freezing point of pure water on the Celsius scale is
a.
0°C.
b.
32°C.
c.
100°C.
d.
212°C.
 

40. 
Heat from a campfire reaches you by
a.
conduction.
b.
light emission.
c.
convection.
d.
radiation.
 

41. 
Convection takes place because
a.
warm air is more dense than light air.
b.
warm and cold air have the same density.
c.
cold air is less dense than warm air.
d.
cold air is more dense than warm air.
 

42. 
Winds are caused by differences in
a.
precipitation.
b.
humidity.
c.
air pressure.
d.
turbulence.
 

43. 
Local winds differ from global winds because they
a.
are caused by unequal heating within a small area.
b.
are caused by differences in cloud cover.
c.
are due to unequal rainfall.
d.
are not influenced by air masses.
 

44. 
Heat transfer between two substances that are in contact is called
a.
conduction.
b.
thermal energy.
c.
convection.
d.
radiation.
 

45. 
Most of the heating of the troposphere comes from
a.
conduction
b.
induction.
c.
convection.
d.
radiation.
 

46. 
Global winds generally
a.
are not influenced by heating of Earth’s surface.
b.
are unpredictable.
c.
change directions from day to day.
d.
blow from specific directions over long distances.
 

47. 
Earth’s rotation makes winds seem to curve. This is called the
a.
convection effect
b.
global effect
c.
Coriolis effect.
d.
rotational effect.
 

48. 
The basic SI unit of length is the
a.
meter.
b.
foot.
c.
inch.
d.
mile.
 

49. 
Speed equals distance divided by
a.
time.
b.
velocity.
c.
size.
d.
motion.
 

50. 
When you know both the speed and direction of an object’s motion, you know the
a.
average speed of the object.
b.
acceleration of the object.
c.
distance the object has traveled.
d.
velocity of the object.
 

51. 
You can show the motion of an object on a line graph in which you plot distance against
a.
velocity.
b.
time.
c.
speed.
d.
direction.
 

52. 
In graphing motion, the steepness of the slope depends on
a.
how quickly or slowly the object is moving.
b.
how far the object has moved.
c.
the velocity of the object.
d.
the direction the object is moving.
 

53. 
If you know the distance an object has traveled in a certain amount of time, you can determine
a.
the size of the object.
b.
the speed of the object.
c.
the location of the object.
d.
the velocity of the object.
 

54. 
If the speed of an object does NOT change, the object is traveling at a
a.
constant speed.
b.
average speed.
c.
increasing speed.
d.
decreasing speed.
 

55. 
In an acceleration graph showing speed versus time, a straight line shows the acceleration is
a.
decreasing.
b.
increasing.
c.
changing.
d.
constant.
 

56. 
One example of changing a substance physically is
a.
burning paper.
b.
baking cookies.
c.
heating table sugar.
d.
blending a milkshake.
 

57. 
One example of changing a substance chemically is
a.
filtering.
b.
burning wood.
c.
boiling water.
d.
crushing a can.
 

58. 
Sugar and salt are examples of
a.
atoms.
b.
elements.
c.
mixtures.
d.
pure substances.
 

59. 
Substances that CANNOT be broken down chemically into other substances are
a.
elements.
b.
compounds.
c.
mixtures.
d.
solutions.
 

60. 
The measurement of the force of gravity on an object is the object’s
a.
mass.
b.
volume.
c.
weight.
d.
density.
 

61. 
The measurement of how much matter an object contains is its
a.
volume.
b.
weight.
c.
mass.
d.
melting point.
 

62. 
The measurement of how much mass is contained in a given volume is called
a.
weight.
b.
melting point.
c.
boiling point.
d.
density.
 

63. 
All elements are composed of extremely small particles called
a.
compounds.
b.
mixtures.
c.
atoms.
d.
molecules.
 

64. 
A group of atoms that are joined together and act as a single unit is called a(n)
a.
element.
b.
compound.
c.
molecule.
d.
solution.
 

65. 
How would you calculate the density of an object?
a.
Divide its weight by its volume.
b.
Divide its mass by its volume.
c.
Multiply its volume times its mass.
d.
Multiply its weight times its mass.
 

66. 
Pure substances formed from chemical combinations of two or more different elements are called
a.
elements.
b.
compounds.
c.
mixtures.
d.
solutions.
 

67. 
Which type of matter consists of two or more substances that are NOT chemically combined?
a.
elements
b.
compounds
c.
mixtures
d.
pure substances
 

68. 
How do liquid water, ice, and water vapor differ from each other?
a.
They are different states of matter.
b.
They are different compounds.
c.
They are made of different kinds of molecules.
d.
They are made of different kinds of atoms.
 

69. 
Which statement was NOT part of Dalton’s theory of atoms?
a.
Atoms can’t be broken into smaller pieces.
b.
All atoms are alike.
c.
Atoms of each element have a unique mass.
d.
The masses of the elements in a compound are always in a constant ratio.
 

70. 
Which part(s) of the atom move around the nucleus?
a.
atomic mass units
b.
electrons
c.
protons
d.
neutrons
 

71. 
The atomic number of an element is based on the
a.
mass of its nucleus.
b.
number of electrons around its core.
c.
number of protons in its nucleus.
d.
number of neutrons in its nucleus.
 

72. 
A solid is a state of matter that has a(n)
a.
indefinite volume and an indefinite shape.
b.
definite volume and a definite shape.
c.
definite volume and an indefinite shape.
d.
indefinite volume and a definite shape.
 

73. 
In which state of matter do the particles spread apart and fill all the space available to them?
a.
crystal
b.
liquid
c.
gas
d.
solid
 

74. 
According to Boyle’s law, when the pressure of a gas increases, its volume
a.
increases.
b.
stays constant.
c.
decreases.
d.
increases, then decreases.
 

75. 
The greater the speed of gas particles, the
a.
fewer collisions there will be.
b.
lower the temperature.
c.
greater the pressure.
d.
lower the pressure.
 

76. 
When the temperature of a gas decreases, its
a.
pressure increases.
b.
volume increases.
c.
pressure decreases.
d.
particles move faster.
 

77. 
According to Charles’s law, when the temperature of a gas increases, its
a.
volume increases.
b.
pressure decreases.
c.
volume decreases.
d.
particles move more slowly.
 

78. 
A change that alters the form of a substance without changing it into another substance is called a(n)
a.
physical change.
b.
chemical change.
c.
thermal change.
d.
energy change.
 

79. 
A chemical change results in
a.
changes in state.
b.
different substances with different properties.
c.
no new substances.
d.
changes in pressure.
 

80. 
The energy a substance has from the movement of its particles is called
a.
light energy.
b.
chemical energy.
c.
thermal energy.
d.
potential energy.
 

81. 
In chemical reactions, the law of conservation of energy means that
a.
energy is always lost.
b.
energy is always gained.
c.
the total amount of energy stays the same.
d.
the total amount of energy before the reaction is less than the total amount of energy at the end of the reaction.
 

82. 
What is vaporization?
a.
a gas becoming a liquid
b.
a liquid becoming a solid
c.
a gas becoming a solid
d.
a liquid becoming a gas
 

83. 
Which process involves a gas changing into a liquid?
a.
melting
b.
freezing
c.
vaporization
d.
condensation
 

84. 
What always happens as a result of a chemical reaction?
a.
New substances are produced.
b.
Two or more substances are combined.
c.
The same substance appears in a different form.
d.
One substance breaks into two or more different substances.
 

85. 
During chemical reactions, energy is
a.
either absorbed or released.
b.
gained or lost.
c.
condensed.
d.
not involved.
 

86. 
The amount of space that a gas takes up is its
a.
volume.
b.
mass.
c.
pressure.
d.
density.
 

87. 
In which state of matter are particles packed tightly together and stay in fixed positions?
a.
gas
b.
solid
c.
liquid
d.
compound
 

88. 
Which state of matter can change volume easily?
a.
solid
b.
liquid
c.
gas
d.
molecule
 

89. 
The energy a substance has from the movement of its particles is called
a.
light energy.
b.
chemical energy.
c.
thermal energy.
d.
potential energy.
 



 
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